Makeup after wudu doesn’t void prayer

April 6, 2018 by Admin Posted in All Q&A, Islamic Laws, Rules of Prayer, Taharat, Wudhu Tagged Hijab, Makeup, Prayer, Wudu

Question 157: Salaam to everyone. I have a question and I hope someone can shed some light or answer my question. Recently my teenage daughter asked me “mum if someone did their ablution before They go college and read the salah there and then put on muscara after their ablution would that salah be void or would it be accepted”? Now I was kind of confused as to what answer do I give. Because as the ablution was done with no mascara on but then the salah would be read WITH muscara on. Please, guys would appreciate the answer. Jzk to all.

Answer 157: According to maraja’, her wudu and prayer are treated as valid as it is not among those unclean things which invalidate wudu (ablution)[1]. However, for a matter of precaution, she should not perform her prayer in a place, where non-mahrams can see her makeup, but it doesn’t void her prayers.

The wudu is accepted because the mascara was applied after. There is not really a problem with the salah being offered with the mascara as its the ablation that is important and the wudu was accepted. What I would focus on next is what your marje says about makeup. Sayyid Sistani (ha) says it is fine to wear khol/mascara as long as it’s not done with the intention to attract attention and if it does then to remove it.[2]

For further information in this regards, please refer to the following answer:

Index: Number of things which invalidate Wudu (ablution), answer 556.

Index: Doubts during prayer whether wudu was performed or not, answer 036.

Index: Wiping performed on socks invalidates Wudu, answer 037.

Index: Impermissibility of making Wudu after Ghusl, answer 035.

Index: Making Wudu when you are going to bed, answer 032.

Index: Philosophy of Hijab during prayer, answer 020.

Index: Men and Women: Covering body in prayers, answer 594.

Index: The validity of Ghusl even a barrier finds out after a week, answer 031.

The official website of the office of Sayyid Sistani (ha), Q&A, Wudhu.

[1] . Tawzih al-Masael of maraja’ (annotated by Imam Khomeini), Vol. 1, Pg. 188.

[2] . Refer to: http://www.sistani.org/english/qa/01265/

Receiving interest from non-Islamic banks

April 5, 2018 by Admin Posted in All Q&A, Bank Interest, Islamic Laws, Transactions Tagged Bank, Interest, Money, Non-Muslim, Riba, Transactions

Question 168: I would like to ask you questions about the bank transactions in a country like India where the Govt. is non-Islamic.

If somebody keeps a particular amount of money (say one lac of rupees) in a bank for a fixed period of time say 4 years and the deal will be done on a fixed interest rate say 10%. After 4 years he gets the sum of Rs 146,000. Will the extra amount considered to be Haram (Riba) or will it be halal and if it is haram then what do we have to do with this amount of money?
Almost all people have a savings account in the bank and the bank itself gives interest to their clients if they their money idle in the account for many years. Will the extra money considered to be Riba or not
And what if somebody works in these types of banks; is it permissible to work there or not or is there any precaution to be taken?

Answer 168: These are the responses we have received from the offices of the Grand Ayatollahs so far regarding your inquiry: Read More

Following a deceased marja (religious authority)

April 5, 2018 by Admin Posted in All Q&A, Ijtihad and Taqlid, Islamic Laws Tagged Deceased Marja, Mujtahid, Taqlid

Question 171: Salaams dear Sheikh. I would like help with regards to the following question: Can a person who has never followed the edicts of a certain deceased Marji’ follow his rulings on a specific issue now?

Answer 171: It is not permissible to follow initially a deceased (A’lam). Of course, it is permissible to continue his Taqlid in some matters absolutely on which he has acted upon (during his lifetime), and apparently even in matters on which he has not acted upon (during his lifetime).

As a precaution, however, it is permissible to revert to a living A’lam, and this reversion is in conformity with the most cautious opinion. As a precaution, it is not permissible subsequently to revert to the verdict of the deceased (A’lam). Similarly, it is not permissible to revert to another living jurist, except when the latter is more learned than the former, because, according to the more cautious opinion, it is obligatory to shift over to the more learned (Mujtahid). It is (more) reliable for a person to continue to follow a living (A’lam), (rather than to follow a deceased A’lam). If a person continues to follow a deceased Mujtahid, without shifting over to a living one, according to whose verdict it is permissible to continue to follow a deceased Mujtahid, it would be as if the person is acting without Taqlid.[1]

For further information in this regards, please refer to the following answer:

Index: Ways to obtain the verdict of a Mujtahid, answer 555.

Index: When a representative of a marja tells a rule incorrectly, answer 019.

Index: Ajwabat al-Istiftaat: Risalah of Ayatollah Khamenei, answer 192.

[1] . TAHRIR AL-WASILAH of Imam Khomeini, Pg. 16.

Qadha prayers of a father is obligatory on the eldest son

March 27, 2018 by Admin Posted in All Q&A, Islamic Laws, Rules of Prayer Tagged Father, Prayer, Qadha, Son

Question 410: Salaam. My Question is that Can son performed prayers of his late father? If possible tell me about all point of views.

Answer 410: According to most of maraja’ (ha), it is obligatory upon an eldest son to compensate all prayers have been missed by his father.

Ayatollah Sistani (ha) says: If a person did not offer some of his obligatory prayers, and did not care to give qadha, in spite of being able to do so, after his death, it is upon his eldest son, as an obligatory precaution to perform those qadha, provided that the father did not leave them as a deliberate act of transgression. If the son cannot do so, he may hire someone to perform them. The qadha prayers of his mother is not obligatory upon him, though it is better if he performs them. But, if the eldest son doubts whether or not his father had any qadha on him, he is under no obligation.

If a dying person makes a will that someone should be hired to offer his qadha prayers, and if the hired person performs them correctly, the eldest son will be free from his obligation.

As is the case with other types of worships, it is permissible to hire someone to offer prayers owed by the deceased with the intention of offering them on behalf of the deceased in the same way as it is permissible to offer the prayers owed by others voluntarily.

The person offering the prayer on behalf of another, whether against payment or voluntarily, shall do so with the intention of doing it on behalf of the other person and in place of the act of the other in order to absolve him of its liability, seeking closeness to Allah and a reward to be bestowed on the other person.

It is also a condition that the person offering the prayer on behalf of another should have the intention (Niyyat) of seeking closeness of the other person to Allah and not his own closeness to Allãh. He shall not obtain closeness to Allah (by offering prayer on behalf of an other), except when he intends by seeking closeness of the deceased to Allah to have done a noble deed and thereby obtain closeness to Allah, the Exalted (as a reward for his noble deed). So also a person may obtain closeness to Allah, as one offering prayer on behalf of another voluntarily, if his intention were such. As regards the receipt of reward by a person hired to offer prayer on behalf of another, as mentioned in some Traditions, it is merely with the beneficence of Allah. It is also obligatory to specify in his intention (Niyyat) the deceased on behalf of whom a person is offering the prayer, even if specified briefly, as saying: “on behalf of the owner of the remuneration paid”, or the like.[1]

For further information in this regards, please refer to the following answer:

Index: How to make up for Qada (missed) prayers, answer 009.

[1] . Tawzih al-Masael (with annotation of Imam Khomeini), Vol. 1, Pg. 764, Issue 1397; Ibid, Pg. 766, Q 544; The Official Website of Sayyid Sistani (ha), rules concerning “Qadha prayers of a father is obligatory on the eldest son”; Tahrir al-Wasilah of Imam Khomeini (ra), chapter of prayer, Rules Concerning Hiring for Offering Prayers, Pg. 258 (English version); Wasael al-Shia, Vol. 5, Pg. 368, chapter 12; Mostamsik Urwa-Tul-Wusqa, Vol. 7, Pg. 137; Bihar al-Anwar, Vol. 88, Pgs. 133-134.

Fiqhi rights of a father to his children upon divorce

March 25, 2018 by Admin Posted in All Q&A, Divorce, Islamic Laws, Marriage Tagged Custody, Divorce, Father, Mother

Question 202: In the case of an Islam divorce, does the father have fiqhi rights to the children upon divorce? Does the mother have rights to keep the children until she remarries and then the children go to the father? Please, provide references.

Answer 202: According to Islam, the expenditures of the children are the responsibility of their father, although who has custody may vary depending on their age and gender.

Imam Khomeini says: “The custody of the son until two years of age and the daughter till seven years of age is the right of the mother, and after that the mother no longer has any rights regarding their custody and the father can take the children from there on. Nevertheless, the expenditures of the children are the responsibility of the father from the beginning. Also, if the mother gets married to another person during the period that she has custody, she will lose her right and the father will take custody of the children from there on.”[1]

Of course, during this time period, both the mother and father have the right to see their children.

Ayatollah Bahjat (ra) says: “During the time when the father or mother has custody of the children, if the other (who doesn’t have custody) wishes to see the child in order to give him/her something, solve his/her problems or just be beside him/her for a while, the other has no right to prevent such a thing from happening.”[2]

According to Fazil Miqdad and Allama Hilli, it is said that Sheikh Sadouq (ra) believed that kids are in custody of the mother until she marries, but we couldn’t find any reliable sources in this regards.[3]

Those traditions in which say that kids are in custody of the mother are as follows:

Imam Sadiq (as):[4]

“«قال: سئل ابوعبدالله(ع) عن الرجل یطلق امراته و بینهما ولد ایهما احق بالولد؟ قال المراة احق بالولد ما لم تتزوج.»”

The above mentioned hadith is somehow more reliable than the following!

The Holy Prophet (PBUH):
«الام احق بحضانة ابنها ما لم تتزوج.»[5]
«ان امراة جاءت الی رسول الله(ص) فقالت: یا رسول الله(ص) ان ابنی هذا کان بطنی له وعاء و ثدیی له سقاء وحجری له حواء وان اباه طلقنی واراد ان ینتزعه منی فقال: انت احق به مالم تنکحی.»[6]

It should be noted that those traditions in which say that the kid are in custody of her mother until at the age of seven years of old are Sahih.

These Hadith have the same meaning. Imam Sadiq has asked: if a man has divorced his wife and they have a child, the child is in custody of the father or mother? Imam replied: the mother until she marries. The two and third hadith were narrated from the Holy Prophet (PBUH) as He was asked in this regards and He replied as the same as Imam Sadiq (as).

For further information in this regards, please refer to the following answer:

Index: Permissibility of getting Divorce when your partner has lied, answer 295.

Index: Essential Requirements of a Successful Marriage in Islam, answer 515.

[1] . The Istifia’at (religious Q&A) of Imam Khomeini, vol. 3, pg. 209; also see: Ajwibatul-Istifta’at of Ayatullah Khamenei in farsi, question 1504, pg. 339.

[2] . Tawdhihul-Masa’el (of Imam Khomeini), vol. 2, pg. 516, issue 1986.

[3] . “al-Tanqih al-Raye”, Vol. 3, pg. 271; “Mokhtalif al-Shia”, Vol. 2, pg. 577.

[4] . Wasael al-Shia, Vol. 15, Pg. 191.

[5] . Jawaher al-Kalam, Vol. 31, Pg. 289.

[6] . Al-Fiqh al-Islami wa Adelatohu, Vol. 15, Pg. 192, Hadith 6.

Taking interest from government organization

February 28, 2018 by Admin Posted in All Q&A, Bank Interest, Islamic Laws, Transactions Tagged Contract, Employee, Exchange, Interest, Investment, Moawaddah, Mudärabah

Question 167: A Pakistani government organization offers interest to their employee in exchange for some money the employee should invest, but with a term in which the probability of returning back their investments is small. Is it permissible to take such interest?

Answer 167: According to some scholars, there would be no problem to take such interest if it is given under a valid legal contracts like Mudärabah (A contract, entered into by two persons on the condition that the stock or Rãs al-Mãl in trade shall belong to one of them, and the labor to another, and in case profit is accrued, it should be divided between both of them. If the whole profit is stipulated to go to the proprietor (of the stock) it is called “Bida’ah, Hibah (donation) moawaddah (exchange contract), advocacy for business or Musharakat (partnership). According to other scholars, it is an example of haram usury.

The grant maraja’ answer to this question is as follows:

Ayatollah Khamenei (ha): There is no problem in it if it is done under moawaddah contract or the like. If you lend it, you are not allowed to take this interest.

Ayatollah Safi Golpayegani (ha): It is impermissible to take interest if you stipulate a condition by which they have to pay back its interest. If they themselves give you the interest there would be no problem to take it.

Ayatollah Makarem Shirazi (ha): Given the supposition made in the questions, taking this interest is considered as haram.

Ayatollah Noori Hamadani (ha): It is considered as a haram act if it is not done under any kind of valid Islamic contracts like Mudarabah and the like.[i]

For further information in this regards, please refer to the following answer:

Index: Rules on taking an interest-based loan before reverting to Islam, answer 293.

Index: Bank Interest / Investment in the Stock Market, answer 604.

[i] . This question has been sent to the office of grand Ayatollahs Khamenei, Safi Golpayegani, Makrarem Shirazi and Noori Hamedani (May Allah grant them long life).

Who is Sayyid? Rules concerning Sehme Sadaat

February 20, 2018 by Admin Posted in All Q&A, Islamic Laws, Khums Tagged Hashemis, Khums, Mirza, Sayyid, Sehme Imam, Sehme Sadaat

Question 352: Assalam o alAikum. Who are syed? According the Holy Quran?

I asked this question because of the concept circling in India and Pakistan about Masoom syed and non Masoom syed. As per my understanding Imam Mehdi as is the last know syed of Hazrat Fatima as blood line.
I do not understand the concept of non Masoom syed blood line.

Regards

Answer 352: In Arabic, the word ‘Sayyid’ simply means Mister, Honorable and Head. In Islamic terminology, it is an honorific title denoting those who are accepted as descendants of Hashim through the Daughter of the Holy Prophet (pbuh), Hadhrat Fatimah Zahra (sa) and Imam Ali (as).[1]

Those who are descendant of Imam Ali (as) through Hadhrat Abbas (as) or Muhammad Hanafiyyah are respectfully called Sayyid. The same way is for those Hashemis who are accepted as descendant of Ja’far al-Tayyar and Aqil.[2]

Although, those who are descendants of Laday Fatimah Zahra (sa) through their mothers are Sayyid, but the term Sayyid is not exclusively related to the children of Hazrat Zahra (sa), because those who are accepted as descendants of Hashim and His generations are also considered as Sayyid. What the only difference is in regards to some rules like Khums that are considered as haram to those whose mothers are Sayyida, only. This means that those children of Sayyida mothers are surely descendant of the Holy Prophet (pbuh),[3] but a non Sayyid father are referred to as Mirza.

According to this following verse of the Holy Quran “Assert their relationship to their fathers; this is more equitable with Allah” it is prevalent and customary that a childs name and race are followed by his father, however ascribing the child to his mother is certainly true as well.[4]

One of the important thing we should take into consideration is that a child whose mother is sayyida but non Sayyid father is only allowed to use Sadaqa, though Khums is not given to him.[5]

Note: Khums should be divided into two parts. One part is Sehme Sadaat, it should be given to a Sayyid who is poor, or orphan, or who has become stranded without money during his journey. The second part is Sehme Imam (A.S.), and during the present time it should be given to a Mujtahid, who fulfils all conditions, or be spent for such purposes as allowed by that Mujtahid. As an obligatory precaution, that Mujtahid must be Aalam, and well versed in public affairs.[6]

Sayyid and non-Sayyid on the Day of resurrection: 1) There is no difference between Sayyid and non-Sayyid in doing their duties and canonical responsibilities as they are equal without having any superiority over each other. Because, the Holy Quran says: “Surely the most honorable of you with Allah is the one among you most careful (of his duty) Surely Allah is Knowing, Aware”. 2) Sayyids due to their descendant ascribed to the Holy Prophet (pbuh) have more responsibility toward observing their Islamic responsibilities and duties.[7]

For further information in this regards, please refer to the following answer:

Index: The difference between Sayyid and Mirza, answer 562.

Index: Zakat and difference between Sayyid and non-Sayyid holms, answer 040.

Index: Impermissibility of giving Sadat portion of Khums to a non-Ithna Ashari Sayyid, answer 041.

Index: Khums in the Holy Quran and Traditions / Things on which Payment of Khums is Obligatory, answer 043.

[1] . Qurashi, Sayyid Ali Akbar, Qamous Quran, Vol. 3, Pg. 350, Dar al-Kutub al-Islmaiya, Tehran, sixth edition, 1992; Ṭurayḥī, Fakhr al-Dīn, majma al-Bahrain, Vol. 3, Pg. 71, Murtadhavi Bookstore, Tehran, third edition, 1996; Arabic and Farsi Farhang Abjad, Pg. 507.

[2] . Khamenei, Sayyid Ali, Ajwabat al-Istiftaat, Pgs. 216-217; Golpayegani, Saayid Muhammad Redha, Majma al-Masael, Vol. 1, Pg. 392, Dar al-Quran al-Karim, Qom, eighth edition, 1409 A.H.

[3] . Majlesi, Muhammad Baqir Biharul Anwar, vol. 10, Pg. 349, H 9, Al-Wafa Institution, Beirut, 1404 A.H. Tawzih al-Masael of maraja (annotated by Imam Khomeini), Vol. 2, Pg. 89, Q 1009.

[4] . Surah, al-Ahzab, verse 5.

[5] . Kulayni, Muhammad bin Yaqoub, al-Kafi, Vol. 1, Pg. 539, H. 4, Dar al-Kutub al-Islamiya, Tehran, 1986; Kulayni, Muhammad bin Yaqoub, al-Kafi, Vol. 1, Pg. 539, H. 4, Dar al-Kutub al-Islamiya, Tehran, 1986; Surah, al-Ahzab, verse 5.

[6] . The Official Website of Sayyid Sistani (ha), Rules concerning Khums, issue 1843.

[7] . Surah al-Hujurat, verse 13; Majma’ al-Masael, Vol. 1, Pg. 393.

Obligatory of paying Khums or Zakat upon Goldsmith

February 11, 2018 by Admin Posted in All Q&A, Islamic Laws, Khums, Zakat Tagged Gold, Goldsmith, Khums, Mithqal, Nissab, Zakat

Question 328: Asalamualaikum. Dear Sheikh,If I am a goldsmith ,is it halal/haram for me to give zakat from my earning from such business(i.e.gold)? Thank you

Answer 328: This question has different assumable cases:

1- If gold meets the criterion of being made into coins, and is in currency for transactions, is in one’s possession, and reach the taxable limits, zakat will apply.[1] But if these coins are made into ornaments and used by women as ornaments, e.g., necklaces and bracelets, then zakat will no longer apply.[2]

Note: Zakaat [obligatory charity] must be paid on gold if it reaches the Nisaab [i.e. the minimum amount liable for Zakaah], which is 20 Mithqaal [a measure which equals 70 grams of pure gold, according to most of scholars], this means that one should pay ½ a Mithqaal as Zakaat, i.e., 2.5% of the value of gold. If 4 Mithqaal is added to the previous mentioned value, 2.5% of gold should be paid again as the liable amount of Zakaah.[3]

2- If gold do not meet the criteria mentioned above, like in the case where they aren’t used as currency in transactions, then zakat will not apply. [4] Based on this, since the gold used today isn’t used as currency, zakat does not apply to it.[5]

However, if a khums year passes and you have other required conditions (which have been mentioned in Tawzih al-Masael of maraja’ (ha)), you are just supposed to pay Khums.

For further information in this regards, please refer to the following answer:

Index: Zakat and difference between Sayyid and non-Sayyid holms, answer 040.

Index: How to calculate Khums on a house purchased with Sahm e Sadat, answer 046.

Index: Khums in the Holy Quran and Traditions / Things on which Payment of Khums is Obligatory, answer 043.

Index: Obligatory of paying knums on wife’s dowry, answer 042.

Index: Obligatory of paying Khums on a plot of land you have the intention to sell it, answer 567.

Index: Impermissibility of giving Sadat portion of Khums to a non-Ithna Ashari Sayyid, answer 041.

Index: Khums on household items received from parents, answer 038.

Index: Obligatory of Khums on savings exceeds a person’s expenditures, answer 559.

Index: Zakat of Fitrah, Zakãt al-Abdan (or Zakãt of Bodies), answer 045.

Index: Things on which Payment of Zakàt is Obligatory or Recommended, answer 044.

Index: Zakat of Gold and Silver and its criterion, answer 039.

[1] . An inquiry from the office of the Supreme leader; Imam Khomeini, Tawdih al-Masa’il (annotated), researched and corrected by: Bani Hashemi Khomeini, Sayyid Mohammad Hosein, vol. 2, pp. 128-132, Islamic Publications Press, Qum, eighth edition, 1424 AH.

[2] . Tawzih al-Masael of maraja’ (with annotation of Imam Khomeini (ra)), Vol. 2, Pg. 129.

[3] . Tawdih al-Masa’il (annotated), vol. 2, pg. 131; Sistani and Saafi Golpaygani (inquiry from their offices); Zanjani: “Gold and silver coins used as currency that women use as ornaments, if are still commonly used in transactions as currency, are subject to zakat, but if they aren’t commonly used in transactions as currency, zakat will not apply, but it is still a recommended precaution to pay their zakat as well.” Tawdih al-Masa’il (annotated), vol. 2, pg. 130.

[4] . Tawdih al-Masa’il (annotated), vol. 2, pp. 128-132.

[5] . Makarem Shirazi (inquiry from office).

Rules of wearing colorful scarf

January 29, 2018 by Admin Posted in All Q&A, Hijab, Islamic Laws Tagged Colorful, Hijab, Scarf, Women

Question 287: Brother I have a question regarding this if a woman wears colorful scarf with proper manner and she feels that she is become more attractive by just color of scarf … is it haram?

Answer 287: There is no problem in it by itself provided that it does not attract others’ attention or entail evils.[1] But, one should show restraint in choosing colors and designs which stand out or attract attention.

Regarding the color of clothing, although the Holy Quran and authentic hadiths have not constrained the color of hijab, considering the philosophy of hijab, that clothing should not attract attention and the fact that come colors cause attraction in a way that it defeats the purpose of hijab, a vast amount of scholars have prohibited wearing such clothing. To look at the whole issue from a general perspective, it can be said that the fatwa of these maraji is based on the fact that when wearing ‘different’ clothing, one should keep in mind the norms of society.

For further information in this regards, please refer to the following answers:

Index: Hijab of Sayeda Fatima al-Zahra (sa), answer 492.

Index: Men and Women: Covering body in prayers, answer 594.

Index: Philosophy of Hijab during prayer, answer 020.

Index: The best place for a woman to pray is at home or mosque, answer 015.

[1] . Tawzih al-Masael of maraja (with annotation of Imam Khomeini), Vol. 1, Pg. 466.

keeping or hanging pictures ascribed to the Imams

January 12, 2018 by Admin Posted in All Q&A, Drawing, Islamic Laws Tagged Imams, Infallibles, Makrooh, Picture, Prayer, Prophet, Urf

Question 144: What is the Shia view on religious and non-religious pictures (like for creative arts or illustration)? What about depictions of the Prophets (saws), and Imams (a.s)? I want to know the permissibly of these things, as well as whether they are liked or makrooh.

Answer 144: The religious authorities’ (grand jurists) answer in this regards: As per the Islamic law, there is no problem to keep or hang those pictures which are ascribed to the Infallible Imams (a.s) and the Holy Prophet (pbuh) in our houses or Hussainiyah, if it is not considered desecrating or disrespectful according to Urf (custom) nor opposed to the status of them.

According to Ayatollah Sistani, If it does not involve desecration of them, there is no problem.

Note: The jurists have said: Offering prayers is makrooh (abominable) at certain places including “facing the picture or statue of living creatures, unless it is covered. It is makrooh to offer prayers at a place where there is a picture, even if it may not be placed in front of the person who offers prayers”.[1]

For further information in this regards, please refer to the following answer:

Index: Rules on drawing according to Islam, answer 226.

[1] . Ajwabat al-Istiftaat (Answers to Religious Queries), vol.2, pg. 38. Tauzihul Masail of Sayyid Roohollah al-Moosavi al-Khomeini (with connotation), vol.1, issue No.898.